the Protestant reformation in the 1600s was in part backlash to the commoness of priests breaking their vows, with women, each other and with young boys. It was so rampant they considered celibacy to be the cause of the corruption and by removing its requirement hoped to prevent the more immoral (for the time) of these acts (Sodomy and pedophilia)
the Protestant reformation in the 1600s was in part backlash to the commoness of priests breaking their vows, with women, each other and with young boys. It was so rampant they considered celibacy to be the cause of the corruption and by removing its requirement hoped to prevent the more immoral (for the time) of these acts (Sodomy and pedophilia)
the word part doing a lot of heavy lifting there
and can I have a source?